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Question 1
Once the make-or-buy analysis is completed, which document defines the project delivery method?
- A: Procurement statement of work (SOW)
- B: Procurement strategy
- C: Terms of reference
- D: Change request
Question 2
What are the project management processes associated with project quality management?
- A: Plan Quality Management, Manage Quality, and Control Quality
- B: Plan Quality Management, Manage Quality, and Cost of Quality
- C: Manage Quality, Customer Satisfaction, and Control Quality
- D: Customer Satisfaction, Control Quality, and Continuous Improvement
Question 3
Which set of competencies should a project manager have?
- A: Leadership, strategic and business management, and technical project management
- B: Expertise in the industry, leadership and business management, and bilingual skills
- C: Technical project management, expertise in every rote, and PMP certification
- D: Expertise in every detail on project activities, PMP certification, and leadership
Question 4
Select two key benefits of the Control Procurements process. (Choose two.)
- A: Enables the development of make-or-buy decisions
- B: Ensures that contract performance meets the terms of the legal agreement
- C: Guarantees that legal agreements influence vendor selection
- D: Assures that legal agreements guide contract closings
- E: Helps determine whether a certain type of contract should be used
Question 5
A project it just beginning, and management creates a long list of potential stakeholders. Which statement about identifying and engaging stakeholders is correct?
- A: The project manager should identify and deal with stakeholders only during the execution phase.
- B: Stakeholder satisfaction should be identified immediately and managed as a project objective.
- C: The project manager should focus on project objectives and deal with stakeholders as a secondary priority.
- D: Stakeholder satisfaction is the most important goal, and project objectives should be considered a secondary priority.
Question 6
Which of the following set of elements is part of an effective communications management plan?
- A: Escalation processes, person responsible for communicating the information, glossary of common terminology, methods or technologies used to convey the information
- B: Phone book directory, stakeholder communication requirements, project charter, glossary of common terminology
- C: Organizational chart, escalation processes, person responsible for communicating the information, project management plan, glossary of common terminology
- D: Glossary of common terminology, constraints derived from specific legislation and regulation, person responsible for communicating information, project management plan, resource management plan
Question 7
DRAG DROP -
Match each process in Project Stakeholder Management with its associated Process Group.
Select and Place:
Question 8
Which is the order of steps in the Procurement Management process?
- A: Identifying and planning procurement requirements, obtaining quotes or proposals, negotiating with vendors, contracting with selected vendors, and controlling procurements.
- B: Identifying and planning procurement requirements, negotiating with vendors, contracting with selected vendors, obtaining quotes or proposals, and controlling procurements.
- C: Controlling procurements, identifying and planning procurement requirements, obtaining quotes or proposals, negotiating with vendors, and contracting with selected vendors.
- D: Obtaining quotes or proposals, identifying and planning procurement requirements, negotiating with vendors, contracting with selected vendors, and controlling procurements.
Question 9
Which is the appropriate tool to identify the possible correlation between two elements in a process?
- A: Scatter diagram
- B: Cause-and-effect diagram
- C: Histogram
- D: Control charts
Question 10
What process is included in Project Integration Management?
- A: Monitor and Control Project Work
- B: Control Scope
- C: Control Schedule
- D: Develop Team
Question 11
What are the inputs of the Estimate Costs process?
- A: Project management plan, work performance data, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets
- B: Project management plan, project documents, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets
- C: Cost baseline, enterprise environmental factors, benefits management plan, and organizational process assets
- D: Project management plan, enterprise environmental factors, basis of estimates, and organizational process assets
Question 12
In what type of organizational structure does a project manager develop their role and work with a team assigned by job function?
- A: Matrix - strong
- B: Matrix - balanced
- C: Virtual
- D: Functional
Question 13
In an adaptive project environment, which action helps the project manager ensure that the team is comfortable with charges?
- A: Having control over the planning and delivery of the products without delegating decisions
- B: Giving access to information to the team and frequent team checkpoints
- C: Selecting different team members to take the project manager role during reviews with stakeholders
- D: Asking the control change board to approve changes before notifying the team
Question 14
The project manager implemented the stakeholder engagement plan and realized that some updates should be made. Which components of the project management plan should be modified?
- A: Project charter and stakeholder engagement plan
- B: Risk management plan and stakeholder engagement plan
- C: Communications management plan and stakeholder engagement plan
- D: Project charter and communications management plan
Question 15
In which Project Cost Management process is work performance data included?
- A: Plan Cost Management
- B: Estimate Costs
- C: Determine Budget
- D: Control Costs
Question 16
In a project using agile methodology, who may perform the quality control activities?
- A: A group of quality experts at specific times during the project
- B: The project manager only
- C: All team members throughout the project life cycle
- D: Selected stakeholders at specific times during the project
Question 17
What does earned value (EV) measure?
- A: Budgeted work that has been completed
- B: Total costs incurred while accomplishing work
- C: Budget associated with planned work
- D: Cost efficiency of budgeted resources
Question 18
How can a project manager represent a contingency reserve in the schedule?
- A: Additional weeks of work to account for unknown-unknowns risks
- B: Task duration estimates of the best case scenarios
- C: Additional duration estimates in response to identified risks that have been accepted
- D: Milestones representing the completion of deliverables
Question 19
Which action should the project manager take after the team finishes executing the scope?
- A: Verify the deliverables to ensure that they are correct and meet the customer's satisfaction.
- B: Accept all the deliverables and deliver them to the customer for final acceptance.
- C: Conduct a joint session with the customer, change the deliverables, and then request approval.
- D: Check that all change requests were implemented and release deliverables to the customer.
Question 20
Which are the main objectives of Project Risk Management?
- A: Increase the probability of positive risks and decrease the probability of negative risks.
- B: Avoid all kind of risks.
- C: Increase the probability of positive risks and eliminate all negative risks.
- D: Identify positive and negative risks.
Question 21
What is the difference between verified and accepted deliverables?
- A: Accepted deliverables have been completed and checked for correctness; verified deliverables have been formally approved by the customer or authorized stakeholder.
- B: Accepted deliverables have been inspected by the quality team; verified deliverables are outputs from the Validate Scope process.
- C: Accepted deliverables have been formally signed off and approved by the authorized stakeholder; verified deliverables have been completed and checked for correctness.
- D: Accepted deliverables have been formally accepted by the project manager; verified deliverables are the outputs from the Control Quality process
Question 22
What statement describes the function or responsibility of a project manager?
- A: Works with the sponsor to address internal political and strategic issues that may impact the team
- B: Seeks ways to develop relationships that assist the team in achieving organizational goals and objectives
- C: Ensures that the project's business operations are efficient
- D: Provides management oversight tor a project's functional or business units
Question 23
A project manager is analyzing a few network diagrams in order to determine the minimum duration of a project. Which diagram should the project manager reference?
- A: A diagram in which resource optimization has been applied.
- B: A diagram in which the critical path method has been applied.
- C: A diagram in which a predefined series of activities has been organized.
- D: A diagram which shows a combination of resource and time optimization.
Question 24
The activity of tailoring is necessary because:
- A: the members of the project team need to select the appropriate order of every tool, technique, input, and output listed in the PMBOK Guide; this is required for all projects.
- B: each project is unique, and the members of the project team should select the appropriate tools, techniques, inputs, and outputs from the PMBOK Guide.
- C: the members of the project team need to understand the PMBOK Guide processes, which are applied to all projects.
- D: each project is unique, and the project team must plan how to apply all the tools, techniques, inputs, and outputs in the PMBOK Guide.
Question 25
The features and functions that characterize a result product, or service can refer to:
- A: project scope
- B: product scope
- C: service scope
- D: product breakdown structure
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