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By cisco
Aug, 2025

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25Q per page

Question 1

Which Cisco platform can verify ACLs?

  • A: Cisco Prime Infrastructure
  • B: Cisco Wireless LAN Controller
  • C: Cisco APIC-EM
  • D: Cisco IOS-XE
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Question 2

Which encapsulation type is a Frame Relay encapsulation type that is supported by Cisco routers?

  • A: IETF
  • B: ANSI Annex D
  • C: Q9333-A Annex A
  • D: HDLC
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Question 3

The internetwork infrastructure of company XYZ consists of a single OSPF area as shown in the graphic. There is concern that a lack of router resources is impeding internetwork performance. As part of examining the router resources, the OSPF DRs need to be known. All the router OSPF priorities are at the default and the router IDs are shown with each router. Which routers are likely to have been elected as DR? (Choose two.)

  • A: Corp-1
  • B: Corp-2
  • C: Corp-3
  • D: Corp-4
  • E: Branch-1
  • F: Branch-2
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Question 4

Which statement about QoS default behavior is true?

  • A: Ports are untrusted by default.
  • B: VoIP traffic is passed without being tagged.
  • C: Video traffic is passed with a well-known DSCP value of 46.
  • D: Packets are classified internally with an environment.
  • E: Packets that arrive with a tag are untagged at the edge of an administrative domain.
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Question 5

Refer to the exhibit.
Given the output from the show ip eigrp topology command, which router is the feasible successor?

Image 1

A.

Image 2

B.

Image 3

C.

Image 4

D.

Image 5
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Question 6

Which three of these statements regarding 802.1Q trunking are correct? (Choose three.)

  • A: 802.1Q native VLAN frames are untagged by default.
  • B: 802.1Q trunking ports can also be secure ports.
  • C: 802.1Q trunks can use 10 Mb/s Ethernet interfaces.
  • D: 802.1Q trunks require full-duplex, point-to-point connectivity.
  • E: 802.1Q trunks should have native VLANs that are the same at both ends.
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Question 7

Which two options are valid WAN connectivity methods? (Choose two.)

  • A: PPP
  • B: WAP
  • C: DSL
  • D: L2TPv3
  • E: Ethernet
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Question 8

Refer to the exhibit.

Image 1

Router edge-1 is unable to establish OSPF neighbor adjacency with router ISP-1. Which two configuration changes can you make on edge-1 to allow the two routers to establish adjacency? (Choose two.)

  • A: Set the subnet mask on edge-1 to 255.255.255.252.
  • B: Reduce the MTU on edge-1 to 1514.
  • C: Set the OSPF cost on edge-1 to 1522.
  • D: Reduce the MTU on edge-1 to 1500.
  • E: Configure the ip ospf mtu-ignore command on the edge-1 Gi0/0 interface.
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Question 9

Image 1

R1 is configured with the default configuration of OSPF.

Image 2

From the following list of IP addresses configured on R1, which address will the OSPF process select as the router ID?

  • A: 192.168.0.1
  • B: 172.16.1.1
  • C: 172.16.2.1
  • D: 172.16.2.225
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Question 10

SIMULATION -

Lab OSPF -
A sporting goods manufacturer has decided to network three (3) locations to improve efficiency in inventory control. The routers have been named to reflect the location: Boston, Frankfurt, Lancaster. The necessary networking has been completed at each location, and the routers have been configured with single area
OSPF as the routing protocol. The Lancaster router was recently installed but connectivity is not complete because of incomplete routing tables. Identify and correct any problem you see in the configuration.
Note: The OSPF process must be configured to allow interfaces in specific subnets to participate in the routing process.

Image 1
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Question 11

Which statement about named ACLs is true?

  • A: They support standard and extended ACLs.
  • B: They are used to filter usernames and passwords for Telnet and SSH.
  • C: They are used to filter Layer 7 traffic.
  • D: They support standard ACLs only.
  • E: They are used to rate limit traffic destined to targeted networks.
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Question 12

A department decides to replace its hub with a Catalyst 2950 switch that is no longer needed by another department. To prepare the switch for installation, the network administrator has erased the startup configuration and reloaded the switch. However, PCs that are connected to the switch experience various connectivity problems. What is a possible cause of the problem?

  • A: The VLAN database was not erased.
  • B: The management VLAN is disabled.
  • C: The running configuration should have been erased.
  • D: The "mode" button was not pressed when the switch was reloaded.
  • E: The switch was not configured with an IP address or a default gateway.
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Question 13

Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined about the interfaces of the Main_Campus router from the output shown?

Image 1
  • A: The LAN interfaces are configured on different subnets.
  • B: Interface FastEthernet 0/0 is configured as a trunk.
  • C: The Layer 2 protocol of interface Serial 0/1 is NOT operational.
  • D: The router is a modular router with five FastEthernet interfaces.
  • E: Interface FastEthernet 0/0 is administratively deactivated.
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Question 14

What are the benefit of using Netflow? (Choose three.)

  • A: Network, Application & User Monitoring
  • B: Network Planning
  • C: Security Analysis
  • D: Accounting/Billing ACD
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Question 15

What is the alert message generated by SNMP agents called?

  • A: TRAP
  • B: INFORM
  • C: GET
  • D: SET
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Question 16

Which identification number is valid for an extended ACL?

  • A: 1
  • B: 64
  • C: 99
  • D: 100
  • E: 299
  • F: 1099
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Question 17

Which of these represents an IPv6 link-local address?

  • A: FE80::380e:611a:e14f:3d69
  • B: FE81::280f:512b:e14f:3d69
  • C: FEFE:0345:5f1b::e14d:3d69
  • D: FE08::280e:611:a:f14f:3d69
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Question 18

An administrator is troubleshooting a problem between routers that are using different versions of RIP. Which two commands would provide information about which version of RIP was being sent and received on an interface? (Choose two.)

  • A: show ip protocols
  • B: show ip route rip
  • C: show interfaces
  • D: debug rip routing
  • E: debug ip rip AE
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Question 19

Refer to the graphic. A company wants to use NAT in the network shown. Which commands will apply the NAT configuration to the proper interfaces? (Choose two.)

Image 1

A.

Image 2

B.

Image 3

C.

Image 4

D.

Image 5

E.

Image 6

F.

Image 7
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Question 20

While you were troubleshooting a connection issue, a ping from one VLAN to another VLAN on the same switch failed. Which command verifies that IP routing is enabled on interfaces and the local VLANs are up?

  • A: show ip interface brief
  • B: show ip nat statistics
  • C: show ip statistics
  • D: show ip route
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Question 21

Refer to the exhibit. Which route will be found in the routing table of the Main router?

Image 1
  • A: C 192.168.2.0 is directly connected, Serial0/1
  • B: R 192.168.2.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.255.26, 00:00:24, Serial0/0
  • C: R 192.168.255.16 [120/1] via 192.168.255.26, 00:00:24, Serial0/1
  • D: R 192.168.255.16 [120/2] via 192.168.255.21, 00:00:22, Serial0/0
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Question 22

Refer to the exhibit. How many interfaces on R1 should be configured as ip nat inside to grant external access to the entire network?

Image 1
  • A: 1
  • B: 3
  • C: 4
  • D: 5
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Question 23

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is troubleshooting an Internet connectivity problem on the computer. What is causing the problem?

Image 1
  • A: incorrect subnet mask
  • B: incorrect IP address
  • C: wrong default gateway
  • D: wrong DNS server B
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Question 24

Which feature can you use to monitor traffic on a switch by replicating it to another port or ports on the same switch?

  • A: copy run start
  • B: traceroute
  • C: the ICMP Echo IP SLA
  • D: SPAN
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Question 25

What is a valid HSRP virtual MAC address?

  • A: 0007.B400.AE01
  • B: 0000.5E00.01A3
  • C: 0007.5E00.B301
  • D: 0000.0C07.AC15 D
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