Which feature of cloud-native security platforms (CNSPs) focuses on protecting virtual machine (VM), container, and serverless deployments against application-level attacks during runtime?
Which component of the AAA framework verifies user identities so they may access the network?
AAllowance
BAuthorization
CAccounting
DAuthentication
What are two limitations of signature-based anti-malware software? (Choose two.)
AIt is unable to detect polymorphic malware.
BIt requires samples to be buffered.
CIt uses a static file for comparing potential threats.
DIt only uses packet header information.
Which endpoint protection security option can prevent malware from executing software?
AApplication allow list
BDNS Security
CURL filtering
DDynamic access control
Which technology secures software-as-a-service (SaaS) applications and network data, and also enforces compliance policies for application access?
ADLP
BCASB
CDNS Security
DURL filtering
Question 6
Security Operations
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Question 7
Cloud Security
Question 8
Endpoint Security
Question 9
Network Security
Question 10
Secure Access
Question 11
Security Operations
Question 12
Security Operations
Question 13
Security Operations
Question 14
Security Operations
Question 15
Cloud Security
Question 16
Cloud Security
Question 17
Network Security
Question 18
Security Operations
Question 19
Cloud Security
Question 20
Network Security
Question 21
Secure Access
Question 22
Cloud Security
Question 23
Security Operations
Question 24
Security Operations
Question 25
Security Operations
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What are two functions of an active monitoring system? (Choose two.)
APreventing specific changes from being affected in the system
BDetermining system health using unaltered system data
CDetecting microservices in a default configuration
DUsing probes to establish potential load issues
Which component of cloud security is used to identify misconfigurations during the development process?
AContainer security
BSaaS security
CCode security
DNetwork security
What is a reason IoT devices are more susceptible to command-and-control (C2) attacks?
ADecreased connection quality within a local area network
BIncreased sharing of data through the internet
CHigher attack surface due to mobility
DLimited battery life preventing always-on security
What would allow a security team to inspect TLS encapsulated traffic?
ADHCP markings
BDecryption
CPort translation
DTraffic shaping
Which component of the AAA framework regulates user access and permissions to resources?
AAuthorization
BAllowance
CAccounting
DAuthentication
Which two workflows are improved by integrating SIEMs with other security solutions? (Choose two.)
AHardware procurement
BLog normalization
CInitial security team training
DIncident response
Which activity is a technique in the MITRE ATT&CK framework?
ACredential access
BLateral movement
CResource development
DAccount discovery
Which tool's analysis data gives security operations teams insight into their environment's risks from exposed services?
AIDP
BIAM
CSIM
DXpanse
What are two advantages of security orchestration, automation, and response (SOAR)? (Choose two.)
ACompletely isolated system
BScripting of manual tasks
CConsistent incident handling
DLong-term retention of logs
Which component of cloud security uses automated testing with static application security testing (SAST) to identify potential threats?
AAPI
BCode security
CVirtualization
DIRP
What is a purpose of workload security on a Cloud Native Security Platform (CNSP)?
ATo provide automation for application creation in the cloud
BTo secure serverless functions across the application lifecycle
CTo secure public cloud infrastructures only
DTo provide comprehensive logging of potential threat vectors
What is an advantage of virtual firewalls over physical firewalls for internal segmentation when placed in a data center?
AThey are dynamically scalable.
BThey possess unlimited throughput capability.
CThey are able to prevent evasive threats.
DThey have failover capability.
What is required for an effective Attack Surface Management (ASM) process?
AReal-time data rich inventory
BStatic inventory of assets
CPeriodic manual monitoring
DIsolation of assets by default
Which term describes establishment of on-premises software on a cloud-based server?
AServerless
BDockers
CCloud-hosted
DKubernetes
Which two statements apply to the SSL/TLS protocol? (Choose two.)
AIt contains password characters that users enter to access encrypted data.
BIt is a method used to encrypt data and authenticate web-based communication.
CIt ensures the data that is transferred between a client and a server remains private.
DIt provides administrator privileges to manage and control the access of network resources.
A firewall administrator needs to efficiently deploy corporate account configurations and VPN settings to targeted mobile devices within the network.
Which technology meets this requirement?
ASIEM
BMDM
CEDR
DADEM
What are two functions of User and Entity Behavior Analytics (UEBA) data in Prisma Cloud CSPM? (Choose two.)
AAssessing severity levels
BIdentifying misconfigurations
CUnifying cloud provider services
DDetecting and correlating anomalies
Which two processes are critical to a security information and event management (SIEM) platform? (Choose two.)
ADetection of threats using data analysis
BAutomation of security deployments
CIngestion of log data
DPrevention of cybersecurity attacks
Which action is unique to the security orchestration, automation, and response (SOAR) platforms?
APrioritizing alerts
BEnhancing data collection
CUsing predefined workflows
DCorrelating incident data
What is an operation of an Attack Surface Management (ASM) platform?
AIt scans assets in the cloud space for remediation of compromised sanctioned SaaS applications.
BIt continuously identifies all internal and external internet-connected assets for potential attack vectors and exposures.
CIt identifies and monitors the movement of data within, into, and out of an organization's network.
DIt detects and remediates misconfigured security settings in sanctioned SaaS applications through monitoring.
