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By palo-alto-networks
Aug, 2025

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25Q per page

Question 1

Which analysis detonates previously unknown submissions in a custom-built, evasion-resistant virtual environment to determine real-world effects and behavior?

  • A: Dynamic
  • B: Pre-exploit protection
  • C: Bare-metal
  • D: Static
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Question 2

Which Palo Alto Networks tools enable a proactive, prevention-based approach to network automation that accelerates security analysis?

  • A: MineMeld
  • B: AutoFocus
  • C: WildFire
  • D: Cortex XDR
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Question 3

What is the proper subnet mask for the network 192.168.55.0/27?

  • A: 255.255.255.192
  • B: 255.255.255.248
  • C: 255.255.255.224
  • D: 255.255.255.0
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Question 4

Which pillar of Prisma Cloud application security does vulnerability management fall under?

  • A: dynamic computing
  • B: identity security
  • C: compute security
  • D: network protection
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Question 5

Which of the following is a service that allows you to control permissions assigned to users in order for them to access and utilize cloud resources?

  • A: User-ID
  • B: Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)
  • C: User and Entity Behavior Analytics (UEBA)
  • D: Identity and Access Management (IAM)
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Question 6

What is a characteristic of the National Institute Standards and Technology (NIST) defined cloud computing model?

  • A: requires the use of only one cloud service provider
  • B: enables on-demand network services
  • C: requires the use of two or more cloud service providers
  • D: defines any network service
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Question 7

Which three services are part of Prisma SaaS? (Choose three.)

  • A: Data Loss Prevention
  • B: DevOps
  • C: Denial of Service
  • D: Data Exposure Control
  • E: Threat Prevention
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Question 8

In a traditional data center what is one result of sequential traffic analysis?

  • A: simplifies security policy management
  • B: reduces network latency
  • C: causes security policies to be complex
  • D: improves security policy application ID enforcement
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Question 9

What does SOAR technology use to automate and coordinate workflows?

  • A: algorithms
  • B: Cloud Access Security Broker
  • C: Security Incident and Event Management
  • D: playbooks
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Question 10

What are three benefits of SD-WAN infrastructure? (Choose three.)

  • A: Improving performance of SaaS applications by requiring all traffic to be back-hauled through the corporate headquarters network
  • B: Promoting simplicity through the utilization of a centralized management structure
  • C: Utilizing zero-touch provisioning for automated deployments
  • D: Leveraging remote site routing technical support by relying on MPLS
  • E: Improving performance by allowing efficient access to cloud-based resources without requiring back-haul traffic to a centralized location
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Question 11

Which endpoint product from Palo Alto Networks can help with SOC visibility?

  • A: STIX
  • B: Cortex XDR
  • C: WildFire
  • D: AutoFocus
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Question 12

From which resource does Palo Alto Networks AutoFocus correlate and gain URL filtering intelligence?

  • A: Unit 52
  • B: PAN-DB
  • C: BrightCloud
  • D: MineMeld
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Question 13

Which type of malware replicates itself to spread rapidly through a computer network?

  • A: ransomware
  • B: Trojan horse
  • C: virus
  • D: worm
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Question 14

Which classification of IDS/IPS uses a database of known vulnerabilities and attack profiles to identify intrusion attempts?

  • A: Statistical-based
  • B: Knowledge-based
  • C: Behavior-based
  • D: Anomaly-based
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Question 15

In an IDS/IPS, which type of alarm occurs when legitimate traffic is improperly identified as malicious traffic?

  • A: False-positive
  • B: True-negative
  • C: False-negative
  • D: True-positive
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Question 16

Which network device breaks networks into separate broadcast domains?

  • A: Hub
  • B: Layer 2 switch
  • C: Router
  • D: Wireless access point
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Question 17

A user is provided access over the internet to an application running on a cloud infrastructure. The servers, databases, and code of that application are hosted and maintained by the vendor.
Which NIST cloud service model is this?

  • A: IaaS
  • B: SaaS
  • C: PaaS
  • D: CaaS
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Question 18

What should a security operations engineer de when reviewing suspicious, but successful, login activity?

  • A: Immediately disable the suspicious user until they conclude their investigation.
  • B: Look for other types of suspicious activity in the moments before or after the login.
  • C: Inspect the network firewall for any open ports and include those in their investigation.
  • D: Review who else was logged in at the same time and inspect all active user accounts.
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Question 19

For which three platforms does the SASE solution provide consistent security services and access? (Choose three.)

  • A: On-site
  • B: Software as a service (SaaS)
  • C: Private cloud
  • D: Public cloud
  • E: On-premises
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Question 20

Which technique changes protocols at random during a session?

  • A: use of non-standard ports
  • B: port hopping
  • C: hiding within SSL encryption
  • D: tunneling within commonly used services
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Question 21

Which type of organization benefits most from the features SD-WAN offers?

  • A: Businesses with one office and many remote employees
  • B: Small businesses in a single location
  • C: Large businesses with a single location
  • D: Businesses with several branches
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Question 22

What is an example of a Web 3.0 application?

  • A: Github
  • B: Bitcoin
  • C: Pinterest
  • D: Facebook
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Question 23

Which two characteristics are associated with a security zone? (Choose two.)

  • A: Perimeter-based network security
  • B: Trust levels
  • C: Cloud-based network security
  • D: Segmentation
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Question 24

What is the primary security focus after consolidating data center hypervisor hosts within trust levels?

  • A: control and protect inter-host traffic using routers configured to use the Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) dynamic routing protocol
  • B: control and protect inter-host traffic by exporting all your traffic logs to a sysvol log server using the User Datagram Protocol (UDP)
  • C: control and protect inter-host traffic by using IPv4 addressing
  • D: control and protect inter-host traffic using physical network security appliances
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Question 25

What are three capabilities of mobile device management? (Choose three.)

  • A: Exploit protection
  • B: Advanced data loss prevention
  • C: Remote erase/wipe
  • D: Container-based endpoint protection
  • E: Malware protection
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