MB2-716
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Question 1
You are creating a set of system views.
Which three options can you configure for the views? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
- A: read, write, and delete permissions
- B: append, assign, and share permissions
- C: default sort order for results
- D: the widths of each column
- E: the columns to display
Question 2
Which two series aggregate functions are only available on numeric field data types? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
- A: Count: Non-empty
- B: Count: All
- C: Avg
- D: Max
Question 3
Which of the following chart types can be configured as an organization-owned chart but not as a user-owned chart?
- A: bar and line
- B: tag or doughnut
- C: line and multi-series
- D: area and funnel
Question 4
You implement Microsoft Dynamics 365 for customers.
A customer reports that their sales support staff is taking too much time updating the probability on opportunities.
You must display an Editable Grid control when users view the Opportunity entity from the web. You must display a read-only grid when users view opportunities on a tablet device.
What should you do?
- A: On the Opportunity entity, clear the Enable for mobile setting.
- B: On the Outlook and Mobile Settings page for the Opportunity entity, configure the Organization data download filter.
- C: On the Opportunity entity, select the Tablet option for the Microsoft Dynamics 365 Read-only Grid setting.
- D: On the Opportunity entity, select the Read-only in mobile setting
Question 5
You create a custom field and set the requirement level to Business Required.
For which scenario is the requirement level enforced?
- A: A user creates a record through the web interface but the required field is not on the current form.
- B: A user creates a record by using one of the mobile clients.
- C: A developer creates a record by using custom code.
- D: A user creates a record by using the data import functionality.
Question 6
You are creating a field for a form.
You need to ensure that users can select an Account record or a Contact record.
Which data type should you use for the field?
- A: regarding
- B: customer
- C: lookup
- D: option set
Question 7
You configure a 1:N relationship between two entities and set the cascade rule for deletion to Referential.
What effect does deleting the parent record have on any child records?
- A: The child records remain but the link to the parent record is removed.
- B: The parent record cannot be deleted until all of the child records are first deleted.
- C: The child records are deleted and the link to the parent record shows as deleted.
- D: The child records are deleted along with the parent record.
Question 8
What is the character limit for a Single Line of Text field?
- A: 1,000
- B: 2,000
- C: 4,000
- D: 10,000
Question 9
You need to create a custom entity to host records that are owned by salespeople in the organization.
Which entity type should you use?
- A: Access Team
- B: Organization
- C: User or Team
- D: Owner
Question 10
You enable status reason transitions for the case entity.
You cannot reactivate a case due to an issue with the current status reason.
You need to correct the issue.
What should you do?
- A: Using status reason transitions, ensure that all active status reason options have at least one value.
- B: Using status reason transitions, add a new active status reason to the current status reason for the case.
- C: Using status reason transitions, ensure that all inactive status reason options have at least one value.
- D: Using status reason transitions, add a new inactive status reason to the current status reason for the case.
Question 11
For which of the following scenarios can you delete an entity?
- A: The entity is custom and uses a system-defined global option set.
- B: The entity is part of a managed solution and no other items are dependent upon the entity.
- C: The entity is part of an unmanaged solution and another unmanaged entity has a lookup field to the entity on one form.
- D: The entity is system-defined and no other items are dependent upon the entity.
Question 12
You create a Publisher and add entities to a solution.
What are two outcomes of these actions? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
- A: The name for existing custom entities that you add to a solution use the prefix that indicates the publisher.
- B: A new section dedicated to the publisher is added to the sitemap.
- C: Option sets that you create as part of the solution use the prefix that indicates the publisher.
- D: The name for custom entities that you create as part of the solution use the prefix that indicates the publisher.
Question 13
You are designing a managed solution that will be deployed to another part of the business. Users may want to customize specific parts of the solution after the solution is installed.
Which capability represents a managed property that users can configure?
- A: the ability to change the display name of a system entity
- B: the ability to reassign a system dashboard
- C: the ability to rename a web resource
- D: the ability to add forms to a custom entity
Question 14
You have a Microsoft Dynamics 365 environment. You create and deploy a custom entity.
Which property can you turn off after enabling the property?
- A: Connections
- B: Feedback
- C: Change Tracking
- D: Activities
Question 15
You are implementing Microsoft Dynamics 365 for a medical center.
You need to implement the Connection functionality of Microsoft Dynamics 365 to display family relationships between patients.
What should you do?
- A: Create a new entity named Connection Role that allows staff to connect the Contact records for family members.
- B: Configure a 1:N relationship between the Contact entity and Relationship entity.
- C: Specify the Connection Roles that describe the relationship.
- D: Create a new Activity entity to describe the relationship.
Question 16
You create a custom entity. Records are created by users through the user interface, and through a backend integration.
You must combine two fields to populate a new field that will replace the name field on the entity.
You need to ensure that the new field displays a result immediately after a new record is saved.
What should you use?
- A: a background workflow
- B: JavaScript code on the record form
- C: a form-scoped business rule
- D: a calculated field
Question 17
Which statement regarding alternate keys is true?
- A: You can define only one alternate key per entity.
- B: Alternate keys are enforced when creating records through the user interface, and during data imports.
- C: You can use date and time fields as part of an alternate key.
- D: Alternate keys provide a warning if there is a matching record, but still allow the record to be saved.
Question 18
Which three actions can you perform by using business rules? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
- A: Display an error message at the field level.
- B: Set a default field value.
- C: Set the active business process flow (BPF) stage.
- D: Display an error message at the form level.
- E: Clear a field value.
Question 19
You create a workflow that automatically sends an email when a condition is met.
The staff reports that emails are not been sent as expected.
You need to correct the issue.
What should you do?
- A: Export the workflow.
- B: Set the workflow to required.
- C: Publish the workflow.
- D: Activate the workflow.
Question 20
You create an asynchronous workflow that runs on demand.
Which statement is true?
- A: The workflow will run in the security context of the user who is designated in the Execute As setting.
- B: The workflow will run in the security context of the system evaluating all conditions and taking all actions configured.
- C: The workflow will run in the security context of the workflow owner.
- D: The workflow will run in the security context of the user who triggered it.
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