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By comptia
Aug, 2025

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Question 26

Which of the following network topologies contains a direct connection between every node in the network?

  • A: Mesh
  • B: Star
  • C: Hub-and-spoke
  • D: Point-to-point

Question 27

A network architect needs to create a wireless field network to provide reliable service to public safety vehicles. Which of the following types of networks is the best solution?

  • A: Mesh
  • B: Ad hoc
  • C: Point-to-point
  • D: Infrastructure

Question 28

A manager is evaluating the environmental design of a data center. Which of the following setups should the manager implement if the maximum thermal dissipation is the highest concern?

  • A: A blue-green
  • B: A hot-cold
  • C: An east-west
  • D: An active-passive

Question 29

A network administrator configured a router interface as 10.0.0.95 255.255.255.240. The administrator discovers that the router is not routing packets to a web server with IP 10.0.0.81/28. Which of the following is the best explanation?

  • A: The web server is in a different subnet.
  • B: The router interface is a broadcast address.
  • C: The IP address space is a class A network.
  • D: The subnet is in a private address space.

Question 30

A network administrator is notified that a user cannot access resources on the network. The network administrator checks the physical connections to the workstation labeled User 3 and sees the Ethernet is properly connected. However, the network interface’s indicator lights are not blinking on either the computer or the switch. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

  • A: The switch failed.
  • B: The default gateway is wrong.
  • C: The port is shut down.
  • D: The VLAN assignment is incorrect.

Question 31

Which of the following internal routing protocols is best characterized as having fast convergence and being loop-free?

  • A: BGP
  • B: STP
  • C: OSPF
  • D: RIP

Question 32

An administrator is setting up an SNMP server for use in the enterprise network and needs to create device IDs within a MIB. Which of the following describes the function of a MIB?

  • A: DHCP relay device
  • B: Policy enforcement point
  • C: Definition file for event translation
  • D: Network access controller

Question 33

A critical infrastructure switch is identified as end-of-support. Which of the following is the best next step to ensure security?

  • A: Apply the latest patches and bug fixes.
  • B: Decommission and replace the switch.
  • C: Ensure the current firmware has no issues.
  • D: Isolate the switch from the network.

Question 34

A company's marketing team created a new application and would like to create a DNS record for newapplication.comptia.org that always resolves to the same address as wwww.comptia.org. Which of the following records should the administrator use?

  • A: SOA
  • B: MX
  • C: CNAME
  • D: NS

Question 35

A network administrator is planning to host a company application in the cloud, making the application available for all internal and third-party users. Which of the following concepts describes this arrangement?

  • A: Multitenancy
  • B: VPC
  • C: NFV
  • D: SaaS

Question 36

A network administrator wants to implement security zones in the corporate network to control access to only individuals inside of the corporation. Which of the following security zones is the best solution?

  • A: Extranet
  • B: Trusted
  • C: VPN
  • D: Public

Question 37

Which of the following network devices converts wireless signals to electronic signals?

  • A: Router
  • B: Firewall
  • C: Access point
  • D: Load balancer

Question 38

A network administrator deployed wireless networking in the office area. When users visit the outdoor patio and try to download emails with large attachments or stream training videos, they notice buffering issues. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

  • A: Network congestion
  • B: Wireless interference
  • C: Signal degradation
  • D: Client disassociation

Question 39

Which of the following activities would have groups from different departments evaluate the disaster recovery process?

  • A: Validation test
  • B: SLA alignment
  • C: Tabletop exercises
  • D: Active-active approach

Question 40

Which of the following routing protocols uses an autonomous system number?

  • A: IS-IS
  • B: OSPF
  • C: BGP
  • D: EIGRP

Question 41

Which of the following is a characteristic of the application layer?

  • A: It relies upon other layers for packet delivery.
  • B: It checks independently for packet loss.
  • C: It encrypts data in transit.
  • D: It performs address translation.

Question 42

Which of the following IP transmission types encrypts all of the transmitted data?

  • A: ESP
  • B: AH
  • C: GRE
  • D: UDP
  • E: TCP

Question 43

Which of the following should be configured so users can authenticate to a wireless network using company credentials?

  • A: SSO
  • B: SAML
  • C: MFA
  • D: RADIUS

Question 44

A network engineer performed a migration to a new mail server. The engineer changed the MX record, verified the change was accurate, and confirmed the new mail server was reachable via the IP address in the A record. However, users are not receiving email. Which of the following should the engineer have done to prevent the issue from occurring?

  • A: Change the email client configuration to match the MX record.
  • B: Reduce the TTL record prior to the MX record change.
  • C: Perform a DNS zone transfer prior to the MX record change.
  • D: Update the NS record to reflect the IP address change.

Question 45

Which of the following should a network administrator configure when adding OT devices to an organization's architecture?

  • A: Honeynet
  • B: Data-at-rest encryption
  • C: Time-based authentication
  • D: Network segmentation

Question 46

Which of the following should be used to obtain remote access to a network appliance that has failed to start up properly?

  • A: Crash cart
  • B: Jump box
  • C: Secure Shell
  • D: Out-of-band management

Question 47

To reduce costs and increase mobility, a Chief Technology Officer (CTO) wants to adopt cloud services for the organization and its affiliates. To reduce the impact for users, the CTO wants key services to run from the on-site data center and enterprise services to run in the cloud. Which of the following deployment models is the best choice for the organization?

  • A: Public
  • B: Hybrid
  • C: SaaS
  • D: Private

Question 48

Which of the following is used to describe the average duration of an outage for a specific service?

  • A: RPO
  • B: MTTR
  • C: RTO
  • D: MTBF

Question 49

A network engineer is setting up a new VoIP network for a customer. The current network is segmented only for computers and servers. No additional switch ports can be used in the new network. Which of the following does the engineer need to do to configure the network correctly? (Choose two.)

  • A: Change network translation definitions.
  • B: Enable 802.1Q.
  • C: Implement a routing protocol.
  • D: Set up voice VLANs.
  • E: Reconfigure the DNS.
  • F: Place devices in the perimeter network.

Question 50

A network rack has four servers and four switches with dual power supplies. Only one intelligent PDU is installed in the rack. Which of the following is the reason to add a second PDU?

  • A: Power redundancy
  • B: Failed PSU monitoring
  • C: Surge protection
  • D: Electricity conservation
Page 2 of 17 • Questions 26-50 of 416

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