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350-701 Practice Exam — Free 691+ Questions

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Question 1

Secure Network Access, Visibility, and Enforcement

Question 2

Content Security

Question 3

Content Security

Question 4

Secure Network Access, Visibility, and Enforcement

Question 5

Secure Network Access, Visibility, and Enforcement

Question 6

Network Security

Question 7

Secure Network Access, Visibility, and Enforcement

Question 8

Security Concepts

Question 9

Secure Network Access, Visibility, and Enforcement

Question 10

Security Concepts

Question 11

Endpoint Protection and Detection

Question 12

Security Concepts

Question 13

Network Security

Question 14

Endpoint Protection and Detection

Question 15

Secure Network Access, Visibility, and Enforcement

Question 16

Endpoint Protection and Detection

Question 17

Secure Network Access, Visibility, and Enforcement

Question 18

Content Security

Question 19

Secure Network Access, Visibility, and Enforcement

Question 20

Endpoint Protection and Detection

Question 21

Endpoint Protection and Detection

Question 22

Secure Network Access, Visibility, and Enforcement

Question 23

Content Security

Question 24

Content Security

Question 25

Secure Network Access, Visibility, and Enforcement

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Question Image

Refer to the exhibit. Which command was used to generate this output and to show which ports are authenticating with dot1x or mab?

A show authentication registrations
B show authentication method
C show dot1x all
D show authentication sessions

Which two capabilities does TAXII support? (Choose two.)

A exchange
B pull messaging
C binding
D correlation
E mitigating

Which flaw does an attacker leverage when exploiting SQL injection vulnerabilities?

A user input validation in a web page or web application
B Linux and Windows operating systems
C database
D web page images

Question Image

Refer to the exhibit. Which command was used to display this output?

A show dot1x all
B show dot1x
C show dot1x all summary
D show dot1x interface gi1/0/12

What provides visibility and awareness into what is currently occurring on the network?

A CMX
B WMI
C Cisco Prime Infrastructure
D Telemetry

Which two conditions are prerequisites for stateful failover for IPsec? (Choose two.)

A Only the IKE configuration that is set up on the active device must be duplicated on the standby device; the IPsec configuration is copied automatically.
B The active and standby devices can run different versions of the Cisco IOS software but must be the same type of device.
C The IPsec configuration that is set up on the active device must be duplicated on the standby device.
D Only the IPsec configuration that is set up on the active device must be duplicated on the standby device; the IKE configuration is copied automatically.
E The active and standby devices must run the same version of the Cisco IOS software and must be the same type of device.

For which two conditions can an endpoint be checked using ISE posture assessment? (Choose two.)

A computer identity
B Windows service
C user identity
D Windows firewall
E default browser

Which policy represents a shared set of features or parameters that define the aspects of a managed device that are likely to be similar to other managed devices in a deployment?

A group policy
B access control policy
C device management policy
D platform settings policy

Which ID store requires that a shadow user be created on Cisco ISE for the admin login to work?

A RSA SecureID
B Internal Database
C Active Directory
D LDAP

Which two kinds of attacks are prevented by multifactor authentication? (Choose two.)

A phishing
B brute force
C man-in-the-middle
D DDOS
E tear drop

What can be integrated with Cisco Threat Intelligence Director to provide information about security threats, which allows the SOC to proactively automate responses to those threats?

A Cisco Umbrella
B External Threat Feeds
C Cisco Threat Grid
D Cisco Stealthwatch

What are the two most commonly used authentication factors in multifactor authentication? (Choose two.)

A biometric factor
B time factor
C confidentiality factor
D knowledge factor
E encryption factor

Which algorithm provides encryption and authentication for data plane communication?

A AES-GCM
B SHA-96
C AES-256
D SHA-384

Which two endpoint measures are used to minimize the chances of falling victim to phishing and social engineering attacks? (Choose two.)

A Patch for cross-site scripting.
B Perform backups to the private cloud.
C Protect against input validation and character escapes in the endpoint.
D Install a spam and virus email filter.
E Protect systems with an up-to-date antimalware program.

Which feature is configured for managed devices in the device platform settings of the Firepower Management Center?

A quality of service
B time synchronization
C network address translations
D intrusion policy

An MDM provides which two advantages to an organization with regards to device management? (Choose two.)

A asset inventory management
B allowed application management
C AD group policy management
D network device management
E critical device management

Under which two circumstances is a CoA issued? (Choose two.)

A A new authentication rule was added to the policy on the Policy Service node.
B An endpoint is deleted on the Identity Service Engine server.
C A new Identity Source Sequence is created and referenced in the authentication policy.
D An endpoint is profiled for the first time.
E A new Identity Service Engine server is added to the deployment with the Administration persona.

What is the difference between deceptive phishing and spear phishing?

A Deceptive phishing is an attacked aimed at a specific user in the organization who holds a C-level role.
B A spear phishing campaign is aimed at a specific person versus a group of people.
C Spear phishing is when the attack is aimed at the C-level executives of an organization.
D Deceptive phishing hijacks and manipulates the DNS server of the victim and redirects the user to a false webpage.

An administrator wants to ensure that all endpoints are compliant before users are allowed access on the corporate network. The endpoints must have the corporate antivirus application installed and be running the latest build of Windows 10.
What must the administrator implement to ensure that all devices are compliant before they are allowed on the network?

A Cisco Identity Services Engine and AnyConnect Posture module
B Cisco Stealthwatch and Cisco Identity Services Engine integration
C Cisco ASA firewall with Dynamic Access Policies configured
D Cisco Identity Services Engine with PxGrid services enabled

An engineer used a posture check on a Microsoft Windows endpoint and discovered that the MS17-010 patch was not installed, which left the endpoint vulnerable to WannaCry ransomware.
Which two solutions mitigate the risk of this ransomware infection? (Choose two.)

A Configure a posture policy in Cisco Identity Services Engine to install the MS17-010 patch before allowing access on the network.
B Set up a profiling policy in Cisco Identity Services Engine to check an endpoint patch level before allowing access on the network.
C Configure a posture policy in Cisco Identity Services Engine to check that an endpoint patch level is met before allowing access on the network.
D Configure endpoint firewall policies to stop the exploit traffic from being allowed to run and replicate throughout the network.
E Set up a well-defined endpoint patching strategy to ensure that endpoints have critical vulnerabilities patched in a timely fashion.

What are two Detection and Analytics Engines of Cognitive Threat Analytics? (Choose two.)

A data exfiltration
B command and control communication
C intelligent proxy
D snort
E URL categorization

Question Image

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the authentication protocol used in the configuration is true?

A The authentication request contains only a password
B The authentication request contains only a username
C The authentication and authorization requests are grouped in a single packet.
D There are separate authentication and authorization request packets.

What is the primary role of the Cisco Email Security Appliance?

A Mail Submission Agent
B Mail Transfer Agent
C Mail Delivery Agent
D Mail User Agent

Which two preventive measures are used to control cross-site scripting? (Choose two.)

A Enable client-side scripts on a per-domain basis.
B Incorporate contextual output encoding/escaping.
C Disable cookie inspection in the HTML inspection engine.
D Run untrusted HTML input through an HTML sanitization engine.
E SameSite cookie attribute should not be used.

Which technology must be used to implement secure VPN connectivity among company branches over a private IP cloud with any-to-any scalable connectivity?

A DMVPN
B FlexVPN
C IPsec DVTI
D GET VPN

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