Is this exam completely free?

ExamCademy offers a free preview for every exam, covering around 20% of the total questions. Full access to all questions is available for free by signing up for an account. Optional supporters unlock AstroTutor (AI tutor) and advanced study modes.

Can I practice IT certification exams from Microsoft, AWS, or CompTIA?

Yes! ExamCademy supports a wide range of IT certification exams including Microsoft Azure, AWS Cloud Practitioner, and CompTIA A+ and Security+.

How accurate are the mock exams?

Our practice questions are community-created and moderator-reviewed to align with realistic exam objectives, style, and difficulty.

156-215-81-20 by Checkpoint - Page 1 | ExamCademy

Mode Selection

Question 1

Question 2

Question 3

Question 4

Question 5

Question 6

Question 7

Question 8

Question 9

Question 10

Question 11

Question 12

Question 13

Question 15

Question 16

Question 17

Question 18

Question 19

Question 20

Question 21

Question 22

Question 23

Question 24

Question 25

Question 26

Page 1 of 7 • Questions 1-25 of 166

1 2 3 4 5

→

Know a question that should be here? Contribute to this exam

In SmartConsole, objects are used to represent physical and virtual network components and also some logical components. These objects are divided into several categories. Which of the following is NOT an objects category?

A Network Object
B IP Address
C Limit
D Custom Application / Site

Security Gateway software blades must be attached to what?

A Security Gateway
B Security Gateway container
C Management server
D Management container

In order for changes made to policy to be enforced by a Security Gateway, what action must an administrator perform?

A Install policy
B Publish changes
C Install database
D Save changes

True or False: More than one administrator can log into the Security Management Server with SmartConsole with write permission at the same time.

A True, every administrator works on a different database that is independent of the other administrators
B False, only one administrator can login with write permission
C True, every administrator works in a session that is independent of the other administrators
D False, this feature has to be enabled in the Global Properties

Which Autonomous Threat Prevention profile uses sanitization technology?

A Cloud/data Center
B Guest Network
C Sandbox
D Perimeter

What is the default tracking option of a rule?

A None
B Alert
C Log
D Tracking

Fill in the blank: SmartConsole, SmartEvent GUI client, and _____ allow viewing of billions of consolidated logs and shows them as prioritized security events.

A SmartMonitor
B SmartReporter
C SmartTracker
D SmartView Web Application

What default layers are included when creating a new policy layer?

A Application Control, URL Filtering and Threat Prevention
B Firewall, Application Control and IPSec VPN
C Firewall, Application Control and IPS
D Access Control, Threat Prevention and HTTPS Inspection

Is it possible to have more than one administrator connected to a Security Management Server at once?

A Yes, but objects edited by one administrator will be locked for editing by others until the session is published.
B Yes, but only if all connected administrators connect with read-only permissions.
C Yes, but only one of those administrators will have write-permissions. All others will have read-only permission.
D No, only one administrator at a time can connect to a Security Management Server.

Which of the following is true about Stateful Inspection?

A Stateful Inspection looks at both the headers of packets, as well as examining their content.
B Stateful Inspection requires two rules, one for outgoing traffic and one for incoming traffic.
C Stateful Inspection requires that a server reply to a request, in order to track a connection’s state.
D Stateful Inspection tracks state using two tables, one for incoming traffic and one for outgoing traffic.

Which of the following is used to extract state related information from packets and store that information in state tables?

A TRACK Engine
B STATE Engine
C RECORD Engine
D INSPECT Engine

In SmartConsole, on which tab are Permissions and Administrators defined?

A MANAGE & SETTINGS
B SECURITY POLICIES
C GATEWAYS & SERVERS
D LOGS & MONITOR

Check Point Update Service Engine (CPUSE), also known as Deployment Agent [DA], is an advanced and intuitive mechanism for software deployment on Gaia OS. What software packages are supported for deployment?

A It supports deployments of single HotFixes (HF), and of Major Versions. Blink Packages and HotFix Accumulators (Jumbo) are not supported.
B It supports deployments of single HotFixes (HF), of HotFix Accumulators (Jumbo), and of Major Versions.
C It supports deployments of Major Versions and Blink packages only.
D It supports deployments of single HotFixes (HF), of HotFix Accumulators (Jumbo), but not of Major Versions.

Which icon in the WebUI indicates that read/write access is enabled?

A Eyeglasses
B Pencil
C Padlock
D Book

Which of the following log queries would show only dropped packets with source address of 192.168.1.1 and destination address of 172.26.1.1?

A 192.168.1.1 AND 172.26.1.1 AND drop
B src:192.168.1.1 AND dst:172.26.1.1 AND action:Drop
C 192.168.1.1 OR 172.26.1.1 AND action:Drop
D src:192.168.1.1 OR dst:172.26.1.1 AND action:Drop

Which default Gaia user has full read/write access?

A superuser
B monitor
C altuser
D admin

In the Check Point three-tiered architecture, which of the following is NOT a function of the Security Management Server?

A Verify and compile Security Policies.
B Display policies and logs on the administrator's workstation.
C Store firewall logs to hard drive storage.
D Manage the object database.

The purpose of the Communication Initialization process is to establish a trust between the Security Management Server (SMS) to other Check Point Gateways and Servers. Which statement best describes this Secure Internal Communication (SIC)?

A After successful initialization, the gateway can communicate with any Check Point node that possesses a SIC certificate signed by the same IC
B New firewalls can easily establish the trust by using the expert password defined on the SMS and the SMS IP address.
C A SIC certificate is automatically generated on the gateway because the gateway hosts a subordinate CA to the SMS IC
D Secure Internal Communications authenticates the security gateway to the SMS before http communications are allowed.

What is the default shell for the Gaia command line interface?

A Admin
B Clish
C Expert
D Bash

The default shell of the Gaia CLI is cli.sh. How do you change from the cli.sh shell to the advanced shell to run Linux commands?

A Execute the command ‘enable’ in the cli.sh shell
B Execute the ‘conf t’ command in the cli.sh shell
C Execute the command ‘expert’ in the cli.sh shell
D Execute the ‘exit’ command in the cli.sh shell

Where can the administrator edit a list of trusted SmartConsole clients?

A Using cpconfig on any Gateway or Server, in the GAiA Portal logged into a Security Management Server.
B Only using SmartConsole: Manage and Settings > Permissions and Administrators > Advanced > Trusted Clients.
C In the GAiA Portal logged into a Security Management Server, using SmartDashboard: Manage and Settings > Permissions and Administrators > Advanced > Trusted Clients, via cpconfig on a Security Gateway.
D Using cpconfig on a Security Management Server, in the GAiA Portal logged into a Security Management Server, in SmartConsole: Manage and Settings > Permissions and Administrators >Trusted Clients.

Which information is included in the "Extended Log" tracking option, but is not included in the "Log" tracking option?

A data type information
B application information
C file attributes
D destination port

Which software blade enables Access Control policies to accept, drop, or limit web site access based on user, group, and/or machine?

A Data Awareness
B Threat Emulation
C Application Control
D Identity Awareness

What does the 'unknown' SIC status shown on SmartConsole mean?

A The management can contact the Security Gateway but cannot establish Secure Internal Communication
B Administrator input the wrong SIC key
C SIC activation key requires a reset
D There is no connection between the Security Gateway and Security Management Server

Choose what BEST describes a Session.

A Sessions ends when policy is pushed to the Security Gateway.
B Sessions locks the policy package for editing.
C Starts when an Administrator logs in through SmartConsole and ends when the Administrator logs out.
D Starts when an Administrator publishes all the changes made on SmartConsole.

156-215-81-20Preview