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AWS Certified Solutions Architect - Professional
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Question 26
Your application provides data transformation services. Files containing data to be transformed are first uploaded to Amazon S3 and then transformed by a fleet of spot EC2 instances. Files submitted by your premium customers must be transformed with the highest priority.
How should you implement such a system?
- A: Use a DynamoDB table with an attribute defining the priority level. Transformation instances will scan the table for tasks, sorting the results by priority level.
- B: Use Route 53 latency based-routing to send high priority tasks to the closest transformation instances.
- C: Use two SQS queues, one for high priority messages, the other for default priority. Transformation instances first poll the high priority queue; if there is no message, they poll the default priority queue.
- D: Use a single SQS queue. Each message contains the priority level. Transformation instances poll high-priority messages first.
Question 27
Which of the following are characteristics of Amazon VPC subnets? (Choose two.)
- A: Each subnet spans at least 2 Availability Zones to provide a high-availability environment.
- B: Each subnet maps to a single Availability Zone.
- C: CIDR block mask of /25 is the smallest range supported.
- D: By default, all subnets can route between each other, whether they are private or public.
- E: Instances in a private subnet can communicate with the Internet only if they have an Elastic IP.
Question 28
In AWS, which security aspects are the customer's responsibility? (Choose four.)
- A: Security Group and ACL (Access Control List) settings
- B: Decommissioning storage devices
- C: Patch management on the EC2 instance's operating system
- D: Life-cycle management of IAM credentials
- E: Controlling physical access to compute resources
- F: Encryption of EBS (Elastic Block Storage) volumes
Question 29
When you put objects in Amazon S3, what is the indication that an object was successfully stored?
- A: A HTTP 200 result code and MD5 checksum, taken together, indicate that the operation was successful.
- B: Amazon S3 is engineered for 99.999999999% durability. Therefore there is no need to confirm that data was inserted.
- C: A success code is inserted into the S3 object metadata.
- D: Each S3 account has a special bucket named _s3_logs. Success codes are written to this bucket with a timestamp and checksum.
Question 30
Within the IAM service a GROUP is regarded as a:
- A: A collection of AWS accounts
- B: It's the group of EC2 machines that gain the permissions specified in the GROUP.
- C: There's no GROUP in IAM, but only USERS and RESOURCES.
- D: A collection of users.
Question 31
Amazon EC2 provides a repository of public data sets that can be seamlessly integrated into AWS cloud-based applications.
What is the monthly charge for using the public data sets?
- A: A 1-time charge of 10$ for all the datasets.
- B: 1$ per dataset per month
- C: 10$ per month for all the datasets
- D: There is no charge for using the public data sets
Question 32
In the Amazon RDS Oracle DB engine, the Database Diagnostic Pack and the Database Tuning Pack are only available with __________.
- A: Oracle Standard Edition
- B: Oracle Express Edition
- C: Oracle Enterprise Edition
- D: None of these
Question 33
Your company has an on-premises multi-tier PHP web application, which recently experienced downtime due to a large burst in web traffic due to a company announcement Over the coming days, you are expecting similar announcements to drive similar unpredictable bursts, and are looking to find ways to quickly improve your infrastructures ability to handle unexpected increases in traffic.
The application currently consists of 2 tiers a web tier which consists of a load balancer and several Linux Apache web servers as well as a database tier which hosts a Linux server hosting a MySQL database.
Which scenario below will provide full site functionality, while helping to improve the ability of your application in the short timeframe required?
- A: Failover environment: Create an S3 bucket and configure it for website hosting. Migrate your DNS to Route53 using zone file import, and leverage Route53 DNS failover to failover to the S3 hosted website.
- B: Hybrid environment: Create an AMI, which can be used to launch web servers in EC2. Create an Auto Scaling group, which uses the AMI to scale the web tier based on incoming traffic. Leverage Elastic Load Balancing to balance traffic between on-premises web servers and those hosted in AWS.
- C: Offload traffic from on-premises environment: Setup a CIoudFront distribution, and configure CloudFront to cache objects from a custom origin. Choose to customize your object cache behavior, and select a TTL that objects should exist in cache.
- D: Migrate to AWS: Use VM Import/Export to quickly convert an on-premises web server to an AMI. Create an Auto Scaling group, which uses the imported AMI to scale the web tier based on incoming traffic. Create an RDS read replica and setup replication between the RDS instance and on-premises MySQL server to migrate the database.
Question 34
A 3-Ber e-commerce web application is currently deployed on-premises, and will be migrated to AWS for greater scalability and elasticity. The web tier currently shares read-only data using a network distributed file system. The app server tier uses a clustering mechanism for discovery and shared session state that depends on IP multicast. The database tier uses shared-storage clustering to provide database failover capability, and uses several read slaves for scaling. Data on all servers and the distributed file system directory is backed up weekly to off-site tapes.
Which AWS storage and database architecture meets the requirements of the application?
- A: Web servers: store read-only data in S3, and copy from S3 to root volume at boot time. App servers: share state using a combination of DynamoDB and IP unicast. Database: use RDS with multi-AZ deployment and one or more read replicas. Backup: web servers, app servers, and database backed up weekly to Glacier using snapshots.
- B: Web servers: store read-only data in an EC2 NFS server, mount to each web server at boot time. App servers: share state using a combination of DynamoDB and IP multicast. Database: use RDS with multi- AZ deployment and one or more Read Replicas. Backup: web and app servers backed up weekly via AMIs, database backed up via DB snapshots.
- C: Web servers: store read-only data in S3, and copy from S3 to root volume at boot time. App servers: share state using a combination of DynamoDB and IP unicast. Database: use RDS with multi-AZ deployment and one or more Read Replicas. Backup: web and app servers backed up weekly via AMIs, database backed up via DB snapshots.
- D: Web servers: store read-only data in S3, and copy from S3 to root volume at boot time App servers: share state using a combination of DynamoDB and IP unicast. Database: use RDS with multi-AZ deployment. Backup: web and app servers backed up weekly via AMIs, database backed up via DB snapshots.
Question 35
A user is running a batch process on EBS backed EC2 instances. The batch process launches few EC2 instances to process Hadoop Map reduce jobs which can run between 50 ?600 minutes or sometimes for even more time. The user wants a configuration that can terminate the instance only when the process is completed.
How can the user configure this with CloudWatch?
- A: Configure a job which terminates all instances after 600 minutes
- B: It is not possible to terminate instances automatically
- C: Configure the CloudWatch action to terminate the instance when the CPU utilization falls below 5%
- D: Set up the CloudWatch with Auto Scaling to terminate all the instances
Question 36
What is the maximum write throughput I can provision for a single Dynamic DB table?
- A: 1,000 write capacity units
- B: 100,000 write capacity units
- C: Dynamic DB is designed to scale without limits, but if you go beyond 10,000 you have to contact AWS first.
- D: 10,000 write capacity units
Question 37
What is the name of licensing model in which I can use your existing Oracle Database licenses to run Oracle deployments on Amazon RDS?
- A: Bring Your Own License
- B: Role Bases License
- C: Enterprise License
- D: License Included
Question 38
When you resize the Amazon RDS DB instance, Amazon RDS will perform the upgrade during the next maintenance window. If you want the upgrade to be performed now, rather than waiting for the maintenance window, specify the option.
- A: ApplyNow
- B: ApplySoon
- C: ApplyThis
- D: ApplyImmediately
Question 39
If I write the below command, what does it do?
ec2-run ami-e3a5408a -n 20 -g appserver
- A: Start twenty instances as members of appserver group.
- B: Creates 20 rules in the security group named appserver
- C: Terminate twenty instances as members of appserver group.
- D: Start 20 security groups
Question 40
The ________ service is targeted at organizations with multiple users or systems that use AWS products such as Amazon EC2, Amazon SimpleDB, and the AWS
Management Console.
- A: Amazon RDS
- B: AWS Integrity Management
- C: AWS Identity and Access Management
- D: Amazon EMR
Question 41
Which AWS instance address has the following characteristics? :"If you stop an instance, its Elastic IP address is unmapped, and you must remap it when you restart the instance."
- A: Both A and B
- B: None of these
- C: VPC Addresses
- D: EC2 Addresses
Question 42
By default, Amazon Cognito maintains the last-written version of the data. You can override this behavior and resolve data conflicts programmatically.
In addition, push synchronization allows you to use Amazon Cognito to send a silent notification to all devices associated with an identity to notify them that new data is available.
- A: get
- B: post
- C: pull
- D: push
Question 43
You want to use AWS CodeDeploy to deploy an application to Amazon EC2 instances running within an Amazon Virtual Private Cloud (VPC).
What criterion must be met for this to be possible?
- A: The AWS CodeDeploy agent installed on the Amazon EC2 instances must be able to access only the public AWS CodeDeploy endpoint.
- B: The AWS CodeDeploy agent installed on the Amazon EC2 instances must be able to access only the public Amazon S3 service endpoint.
- C: The AWS CodeDeploy agent installed on the Amazon EC2 instances must be able to access the public AWS CodeDeploy and Amazon S3 service endpoints.
- D: It is not currently possible to use AWS CodeDeploy to deploy an application to Amazon EC2 instances running within an Amazon Virtual Private Cloud (VPC.)
Question 44
You are implementing AWS Direct Connect. You intend to use AWS public service end points such as Amazon S3, across the AWS Direct Connect link. You want other Internet traffic to use your existing link to an Internet Service Provider.
What is the correct way to configure AWS Direct connect for access to services such as Amazon S3?
- A: Configure a public Interface on your AWS Direct Connect link. Configure a static route via your AWS Direct Connect link that points to Amazon S3 Advertise a default route to AWS using BGP.
- B: Create a private interface on your AWS Direct Connect link. Configure a static route via your AWS Direct connect link that points to Amazon S3 Configure specific routes to your network in your VPC.
- C: Create a public interface on your AWS Direct Connect link. Redistribute BGP routes into your existing routing infrastructure; advertise specific routes for your network to AWS.
- D: Create a private interface on your AWS Direct connect link. Redistribute BGP routes into your existing routing infrastructure and advertise a default route to AWS.
Question 45
An IAM user is trying to perform an action on an object belonging to some other root account's bucket.
Which of the below mentioned options will AWS S3 not verify?
- A: The object owner has provided access to the IAM user
- B: Permission provided by the parent of the IAM user on the bucket
- C: Permission provided by the bucket owner to the IAM user
- D: Permission provided by the parent of the IAM user
Question 46
An organization is planning to extend their data center by connecting their DC with the AWS VPC using the VPN gateway. The organization is setting up a dynamically routed VPN connection.
Which of the below mentioned answers is not required to setup this configuration?
- A: The type of customer gateway, such as Cisco ASA, Juniper J-Series, Juniper SSG, Yamaha.
- B: Elastic IP ranges that the organization wants to advertise over the VPN connection to the VPC.
- C: Internet-routable IP address (static) of the customer gateway's external interface.
- D: Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) Autonomous System Number (ASN) of the customer gateway.
Question 47
In the context of AWS IAM, identify a true statement about user passwords (login profiles).
- A: They must contain Unicode characters.
- B: They can contain any Basic Latin (ASCII) characters.
- C: They must begin and end with a forward slash (/).
- D: They cannot contain Basic Latin (ASCII) characters.
Question 48
An organization is planning to host a Wordpress blog as well a joomla CMS on a single instance launched with VPC. The organization wants to have separate domains for each application and assign them using Route 53. The organization may have about ten instances each with two applications as mentioned above.
While launching the instance, the organization configured two separate network interfaces (primary + ENI) and wanted to have two elastic IPs for that instance. It was suggested to use a public IP from AWS instead of an elastic IP as the number of elastic IPs is restricted.
What action will you recommend to the organization?
- A: I agree with the suggestion but will prefer that the organization should use separate subnets with each ENI for different public IPs.
- B: I do not agree as it is required to have only an elastic IP since an instance has more than one ENI and AWS does not assign a public IP to an instance with multiple ENIs.
- C: I do not agree as AWS VPC does not attach a public IP to an ENI; so the user has to use only an elastic IP only.
- D: I agree with the suggestion and it is recommended to use a public IP from AWS since the organization is going to use DNS with Route 53.
Question 49
What is the default maximum number of VPCs allowed per region?
- A: 5
- B: 10
- C: 100
- D: 15
Question 50
A customer has a website which shows all the deals available across the market. The site experiences a load of 5 large EC2 instances generally.
However, a week before Thanksgiving vacation they encounter a load of almost 20 large instances. The load during that period varies over the day based on the office timings.
Which of the below mentioned solutions is cost effective as well as help the website achieve better performance?
- A: Setup to run 10 instances during the pre-vacation period and only scale up during the office time by launching 10 more instances using the AutoScaling schedule.
- B: Keep only 10 instances running and manually launch 10 instances every day during office hours.
- C: During the pre-vacation period setup 20 instances to run continuously.
- D: During the pre-vacation period setup a scenario where the organization has 15 instances running and 5 instances to scale up and down using Auto Scaling based on the network I/O policy.
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